Parshat Matot-Masei - Questions for Self Study
Parshat Matot-Masei - Questions for Self Study
Questions for the 'Shabbat Table'
Questions for Shiur Preparation
Questions on Parshanut
Part I - Questions for the 'Shabbat Table'
1.
Based on the opening pasuk of the story of Bnei Gad and Reuven
(see 32:1), explain why this parshia follows immediately after
the story of the war against Midyan (i.e. chapter 31).
[In your answer, be sure to relate to 31:32.]
2.
Review 34:16-29.
Attempt to give a title to this parshia, and
explain how it relates to the parshiot that precede it and
follow it.
In what way is the parshia similar to the opening parshia
concerning the "meraglim" in the beginning of Parshat Shlach (see
13:1-18)?
In what way is it different?
Which tribes are missing from the list in 34:16-29!?
Can you explain why?
[The answer is very simple!]
Next, review those psukim carefully once again, noting
which tribal leader are not referred to as Nasi.
Can you explain why?
[The answer is very difficult, and if do find
one, please tell me!]
3.
Can you explain the logic of Am Yisrael having twelve
independent tribes?
Would it not have been better for Am Yisrael
to be simply one united nation, i.e. without the institution of
tribes at all?
[Would this not enhance the unity of Am Yisrael?]
If you do find value to this concept of 12 tribes, attempt
to relate it to the overall purpose of Am Yisrael to become a
model nation before all nations.
Can your answer help explain why in Sefer Bamidbar we find
so many parshiot that relate to twelve tribes and their leaders
[including Parshat Matot itself!]?
4.
What is the purpose of separating shevet Levi?
Is their sole
responsibility simply to work in the Mishkan/Mikdash?
If so, why are their cities scattered among all twelve
tribes (see 35:1-8)?
If not, what else are they supposed to do all day?
Relate to Devarim 17:8-11, 33:8-11!
How are they supposed to 'make a living' if they only have
cities, but no land to cultivate?
5.
God's command to Bnei Yisrael concerning how to apportion the
land appears to contain an internal contradiction.
On the one
hand, it states:
"You shall apportion the land among yourselves... with larger groups increase the share, with smaller groups reduce the share..." (see Bamidbar 26:54-55)This implies that the basis for the apportion the size of each tribe and/or family. Yet, the next pasuk seems to imply exactly the opposite:
"Each portion shall be assigned by lot, whether for larger or smaller groups." (see 26:56)In Parshat Masei, this ambiguous command is repeated, but in shorter form:
"You shall apportion the land by lots, clan by clan: with larger groups increase the share, with smaller groups reduce the share. Wherever the lot falls for anyone, that shall be his..." (33:54)So 'tachlis,' how is the land supposed to be apportioned?
Part II - Questions for Preparation (for weekly shiur)
1.
In Parshat Masei (see 34:1-15), we find the precise borders
of Eretz Canaan.
Note the eastern border.
Does it include
Transjordan?
In Parshat Matot, Moshe agrees to consider Transjordan as
the official inheritance of Gad and Reuven (on the condition that
they first help in the conquest of Eretz Canaan).
If this area
is outside the above mentioned borders, does Moshe's decision
make sense?
[If Transjordan is part of the holyland, then it should be
within the official borders! If not, how can it be
considered an inheritance of one of the tribes?]
Did you ever notice this problem before?
If so, how did you
resolve it?
Is the Negev part of the Land of Israel? If so, why do Bnei Yisrael pass through it during their journey through the desert?
2.
In Moshe's initial response to the request of Bnei Gad and
Reuven, he compares them to the "meraglim."
Later, he agrees to
their demands.
What causes Moshe's change in attitude?
Do Bnei
Gad and Reuven relate in their response to Moshe's initial
accusation?
If so, how?
Does Chumash explain why?
If so, where?
In your opinion, why do you think Moshe finally agreed?
3.
Scan through Sefer Breishit noting the various instances where
God promises the Promised Land to the Avot.
[To save you some
time, see Breishit 12:7, 13:14-17, 15:18, 17:7-8, 22:17-18, 26:2-
5, 28:3-4, 28:13-14, 35:11-12, 46:1-4, 48:4 and 21.]
From these sources, can you pinpoint the precise borders?
[See also Breishit 10:19 in relation to 17:7-8.]
Do any of these borders contradict one another?
Be sure to relate to Breishit 15:18-20 [Brit Bein
Ha'btarim] in comparison to Breishit 17:7-8 [Brit Milah].
4.
When one says that the land is "holy," what does this imply?
What "halachot" does this "kedusha" (holiness) affect?
Are you aware of any halachot relating to this "kedusha"
that depend on who is sovereign in the Land?
If so, what are they, and why?
[See Rambam Hilchot Trumot 1:1-5. See also 1:26]
Part III - Parshanut
1.
Read the opening pasuk in Parshat Matot (30:2).
In comparison
to all other introductions in Chumash to a set of mitzvot, how
is this introduction unique?
Note which mforshim are bothered by this question!
[Are there any that weren't?]
2.
Before we continue, note that the division of the Bible
according to chapters (a non-Jewish tradition) begins this
chapter with the final pasuk of Parshat Pinchas [see 30:1]!
Note the division according to parshiot (a Jewish tradition)
that contradicts this division.
The new parsha begins in 30:2!
According to simple "pshat," which division is correct?
Can you think of any reason at all why this chapter should
begin in 30:1?
How does this pasuk (30:1) relate to chapter 29?
[Use 28:2 (in relation to 30:1) to prove that Chazal are
correct!]
In your opinion, could this 'mistake' in the division of chapters
relate to the problem raised in question #1 (above)?
3.
This parsha (the laws of nedarim) is unique for it is given
specifically to the tribal leaders [you should have noted this
in question #1].
In your opinion, was this parsha given only to the tribal
leaders (and not to the people)?
If so, why shouldn't the people know these laws?
If not, i.e. the laws were intended for everyone, how are
we suppose to understand this pasuk?
See Rashi 30:2.
How does he answer this question?
There are two stages in Rashi's answer; explain each stage.
Rashi refers to Shmot 34:31-32.
Review from 34:27-35.
Which specific mitzvot did Moshe convey to Bnei
Yisrael when he came down from Har Sinai with the
second luchot?
[See mforshim there also.]
Why is this source key to Rashi's pirush?
Now, see Ramban on 30:2.
How does he answer this question?
In what manner is his approach totally different than Rashi's?
4.
Many mforshim raise a more basic problem, i.e. what are the
laws of nedarim (vows) doing here at all?
Before you see the mforshim inside, attempt to answer the
following questions:
See Ibn Ezra on 30:2.
How would the Ibn Ezra answer the above question?
Note that Ibn Ezra's pirush implies that this parsha of
nedarim was first given to Bnei Yisrael at this time (i.e.
during the 40th year in the desert, after the war against
Midyan).
Would any of the other mforshim agree with this
assumption?
Explain why or why not?
If Ibn Ezra is correct, why isn't this parsha written
after chapter 32?
How does he deal with this problem in his
pirush?
[See also Chizkuni on 30:2.]
See Sforno on 30:2.
How does Sforno connect our parsha to the
mitzvot that were given on Har Sinai?
Would Sforno agree with Ibn Ezra in regard to when this
parsha was first given?
5.
Read 30:17 carefully.
Which of the above pirushim does this pasuk support?
Which pirush does it appear to contradict?
6. Note the various times in Chumash where the phrase "zeh ha'davar" is used [in addition to Bamidbar 30:2]: